2021 PRE-Mix October - Sleepy Classes
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PRE-Mix
(Compilations of the Multiple Choice Questions)
For the Month
Of
October
2021
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Table of Contents
1. Geography .............................................................................................................1
2. History & Culture .............................................................................................11
3. Polity & Governance .......................................................................................22
4. Economy ..............................................................................................................37
5. Environment.......................................................................................................51
Science & Technology .........................................................................................67
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1. Geography
To watch the following questions on YouTube, click on the links given below
Video 1
Video 2
Video 3
1. With respect to the ‘Shadow Zones’, • It was observed that seismographs
consider the following statements: located at any distance within 105°
from the epicentre, recorded the
1. For each earthquake, there exists an
arrival of both the P- and the S-waves.
altogether different shadow zone.
2. Any seismograph located within
• However, the seismographs located
beyond 145° from the epicentre record
145° from the epicentre will record
the arrival of the P-waves, but not that
both the P-and the S-waves.
of the S-waves.
3. The shadow zone of the S-waves is
much larger than that of the P-
• Thus, a zone between 105° and 145°
from the epicentre was identified as
waves.
the shadow zone for both the types of
Which of the statements given above is/ waves. The entire zone beyond 105°
are correct? does not receive the S- waves.
A. 1 only • The shadow zone of the S-waves is
much larger than that of the P-waves.
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only • The shadow zone of the P-waves
appears as a band around the Earth
D. 1 and 3 only between 105° and 145° away from the
epicentre.
Answer: D
Explanation • The shadow zone of the S-waves is not
only larger in extent, but it is also a
• Earthquake waves get recorded in little over 40% of the Earth surface.
seismographs located at far off
locations. However, there exist some
specific areas where the waves are not
reported. Such a zone is called the
‘shadow zone’.
• The study of different events reveals
that for each earthquake, there exists
altogether different shadow zone.
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2. Which of the following are part of • Deltas are depositional landforms that
depositional landforms? are formed due to depositions of load
carried by the rivers just before they
1. Deltas
get submerged into the sea.
2. Meanders
3. Plunge Pools
4. Natural Levees
Select the correct code.
A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only • Natural levees are formed in flood
plains. They are low, linear, and
C. 1, 2 and 4 only parallel ridges of coarse deposits along
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only the banks of a river. Levees are formed
when the river shifts laterally. Hence
Answer: C they are also depositional in nature.
Explanation
• Depositional landforms are the visible
evidence of processes that have
deposited sediments or rocks after
they were transported by flowing ice
or water, wind or gravity.
• Meanders: Rivers rarely flow in a
straight line. Due to the deviational
zigzag motion of the rivers, depending
on the slope and the underlying
surface, Meanders are formed. They • Plunge pools are erosional landforms.
are also depositional landforms. They are formed at the foot of the
waterfalls. They are large potholes
formed due to erosion of the land due
to the continuous impact of water.
They are large and deep holes filled
with water.
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3. Saumitra Kumar Haldar, now the • The Cauvery basin is spread over
head of the Central Water 81,155 square kilometres (sq km) in the
Commission, has been made Cauvery states of Karnataka (34,273 sq km),
Water Management Authority Tamil Nadu (43,856 sq km) and Kerala
(CWMA) CWMA’s chairman. (2,866 sq km) and the Union Territory
Consider the following statements of Puducherry (160 sq km).
with respect to Cauvery river.
• The Cauvery’s major tributaries,
1. It is the fourth-largest river in south Kabini and Moyar, join it before it
India. reaches the Stanley Reservoir at
Mettur in Tamil Nadu’s Salem district.
2. It originates in the Western Ghats.
3. Kabini and Moyar are major
• The river’s total length, from source to
mouth, is 802 kilometres.
tributaries of Cauvery River.
4. Of all the states and UTs of India,
the Cauvery basin is spread over
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
4. Arrange the following hills from
Answer: A South to North:
Explanation 1. Jaintia Hills
• The Cauvery (also spelt as ‘Kaveri’), 2. Mikir Hills
known as ‘Ponni’ in Tamil, is the
3. Dafla Hills
fourth-largest river in south India.
4. Lushai Hills
• Originating in the Western Ghats at
Talakaveri in Karnataka’s Kodagu Choose the correct code from the
district, it passes through Tamil Nadu. options given below:
• The river bisects the state into north A. 1-2-3-4
and south and finally reaches the Bay
B. 4-2-3-1
of Bengal at Poompuhar.
C. 4-1-2-3
D. 4-3-1-2
Answer: C
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Explanation • It is observed over South America and
the southern Atlantic Ocean.
• SAA arises from two features of
Earth’s core: The tilt of its magnetic
axis, and the flow of molten metals
within its outer core.
• So far, SAA degradation has not
caused any visible impacts on Earth’s
surface.
• Recent data shows that SAA is
expanding westward and splitting into
two lobes, this will impact Low earth
orbit satellites, International space
station etc
5. Consider the following statements
(Solar System & Interior of Earth)
about South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA):
6. Consider the following statements.
1. It is an intensification in the Earth’s
Magnetic field in some regions. 1. Venus is hotter than Mercury
because of its predominant CFCs in
2. It arises due to the tilt of Earth’s the atmosphere.
magnetic axis and flow of molten
metal in the outer core. 2. Earth is sixth largest planet.
Which of the statements given above is/ 3. The surface temperature of Jupiter
are correct? is close to -100°C.
A. 1 only 4. Saturn has no solid surface and
hence no record of a geologic
B. 2 only history.
C. Both 1 and 2 Which of the above statements is/are
D. Neither 1 nor 2 incorrect?
Answer: B A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation B. 2, 3 and 4 only
• SAA also called as ‘dent’ in Earth’s C. 1, 3 and 4 only
Magnetic Field is an unusually weak D. 2 and 4 only
spot in the Earth’s Magnetic Field that
allows charged particles from Sun to Answer: A
dip closer to the Earth’s surface than Explanation
normal.
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• Venus is hotter because of its Explanation
predominant CO2 in atmosphere. It
absorbs sunlight which creates super
• The first difference between the two
layers comes in the composition of the
greenhouse effect.
rocks.
• Jupiter has no solid surface and hence • The oceanic crust is mainly made out
no record of a geologic history and it is
of dark basalt rocks that are rich in
the largest planet in the solar system.
minerals and substances like silicon
• Surface is made up of may gases like and magnesium.
Hydrogen, Helium, Methane etc. Its
surface is very cold, probably -130 C.
• By contrast, the continental crust is
made up of light- colored granite rocks
• Saturn is a gas planet and has no solid full of substances like oxygen and
surface. It is made of hydrogen, silicon.
helium, ammonia, and methane.
• Another difference comes in the
density of the two layers.
• From the descriptions, it is clear that
the oceanic crust has a higher density
than the more buoyant continental
crust since the latter floats on top of
the former.
7. Consider the following statements • Getting into the technicalities, the
with respect to differences between continental crust has a density of
Oceanic and Continental Crust. around 3.0 g/cm3 compared to 2.6 g/
cm3 of the continental crust.
1. The continental crust is older as
compared to oceanic crust. • Inaddition, the continental crust is
much thicker than the oceanic crust.
2. Continental crust is less dense than
oceanic crust.
3. Continental crust is thicker, on the
contrary, the oceanic crust is
thinner.
Which of the above statements are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only • The continental crust is older than the
D. 1, 2 and 3 oceanic crust. This fact can be easily
explained by the recycling process of
Answer: D the oceanic crust.
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• The recycling process does not happen 9. Arrange the following elements in the
to the continental layer. Consequently, decreasing order of their presence in
this ensures that the oceanic layer is Earth’s Crust.
always younger geologically.
1. Iron
2. Calcium
8. W h i c h o n e o f t h e f o l l o w i n g
3. Potassium
statements correctly defines
Kirkwood Gaps? 4. Sodium
A. It is the gap between the orbits of Select the correct code.
Uranus and Neptune.
A. 2-3-1-4
B. These are gaps within asteroid belt
B. 1-2-3-4
where very few or almost no
asteroids are found. C. 1-2-4-3
C. It is the region in the Earth D. 2-3-4-1
atmosphere above north pole
Answer: C
D. where gravity is maximum. D. None
Explanation
of the above
Major Elements in the Earth's Crust
Answer: B
Explanation
• A Kirkwood gap is a gap or dip in the
distribution of the semi- major axes (or
equivalently of the orbital periods) of
the orbits of main-belt asteroids. They
correspond to the locations of orbital
resonances with Jupiter.
• The gaps were first noticed in 1866 by
Daniel Kirkwood.
10. Consider the following statements:
1. Lucy Mission will be the first space
mission to study Europa, moon of
Jupiter.
2. A trojan is a small celestial body
that revolves around the moons of
Jupiter.
3. Mission has been launched by
NASA.
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Which of the above statements is/are Climatology
correct?
11. Consider the following pairs:
A. 1 and 2 only
Atmosphere Layer :: Feature
B. 2 and 3 only
1. Troposphere :: This layer is marked
C. 1 and 3 only by temperature inversion.
D. 3 only 2. Stratosphere :: This layer is almost
free from clouds.
Answer: D
3. Exosphere :: Kármán line is located
Explanation
within this layer
• A spacecraft has launched from Cape Which of the above pairs are correct?
Canaveral on a mission to uncover
"the fossils" of the Solar System. A. 1 and 2 only
• Over the next 12 years, Lucy will fly B. 2 and 3 only
by one main-belt asteroid and seven
C. 1 and 3 only
Trojan asteroids, making it the
agency’s first single spacecraft mission D. 1, 2 and 3
in history to explore so many different Answer: A
asteroids. Lucy will investigate these
“fossils” of planetary formation up Explanation
close during its journey.
• The Lucy probe will head out to the
orbit of Jupiter to study two groups of
asteroids that run in swarms ahead of,
and behind, the gas giant, Jupiter.
• The Trojans orbit the Sun in two loose
groups, with one group leading ahead
of Jupiter in its path, the other trailing
behind.
12. Consider the following statements:
1. A l b e d o o f a s u r f a c e i s t h e
proportion of sunlight that the
surface can reflect back into space.
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2. The difference between the mean • Winds transfer heat from one latitude
temperature of a place and the to another. E.g. Poles would have been
mean temperature of its parallel much colder if it is not for the
(latitude) is called thermal moderating effect by the atmospheric
anomaly. circulation.
3. Poles would have been much colder • Winds also help in exchange of heat
if it is not for the moderating effect between land and water bodies. E.g.
by the atmospheric circulation. Land breeze and sea breeze.
Which of the above statements are
correct?
13. Consider the following statements
A. 1 and 2 only with respect to Lapse Rate.
B. 2 and 3 only 1. Lapse rate is the rate of change in
temperature of the atmosphere with
C. 1 and 3 only
altitude.
D. 1, 2 and 3
2. The lapse rate is considered
Answer: D positive if the temperature
increases with elevation.
Explanation
3. The lapse rate of tropopause is zero.
• Albedo is the amount of sunlight
(solar radiation) reflected by a surface, 4. A t m o s p h e r e a b s o r b i n g t h e
and is usually expressed as a outgoing terrestrial (longwave)
percentage or a decimal value, with 1 radiation is the main reason for fall
being a perfect reflector and 0 in temperature with altitude.
absorbing all incoming light.
Which of the above statements are
• When talking about albedo, the correct?
surface is almost always the surface of
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
a planet like Earth.
B. 2 and 3 only
• White objects, such as a snowy hill
have a high albedo. Conversely, dark C. 1, 3 and 4 only
objects, like pavement, have a low
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
albedo.
Answer: C
• The difference between the mean
temperature of a place and the mean Explanation
temperature of its parallel (latitude) is
called the temperature anomaly or
• Lapse rate (Temperature Lapse or
Temperature Lapse Rate) is the rate of
thermal anomaly.
change in temperature of the
• The largest anomalies occur in the atmosphere with altitude (elevation).
northern hemisphere and the smallest
in the southern hemisphere.
• The lapse rate is considered:
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✓ Positive: Temperature decreases D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
with elevation,
Answer: B
✓ Zero: Temperature is constant with
Explanation
elevation !Negative:
✓ Te m p e r a t u r e i n c r e a s e s w i t h
• The factors that affect wind movement
are pressure gradient force, buoyant
elevation
force, friction, Coriolis force,
• Hence, the lapse rate of troposphere gravitational force and centripetal
below tropopause is positive, the lapse acceleration.
rate of tropopause is zero, and the
lapse rate of stratosphere is negative.
• The pressure gradient (difference in
pressure) between atmospheric
• The fall in temperature with altitude is pressure cells and the surroundings
primarily due to the following reason: causes the movement of air from
relatively high-pressure centres to
✓ Atmosphere is mostly transparent to
relatively low-pressure centres.
in the incoming shortwave radiation
but actively absorbs the outgoing • The atmospheric pressure cells also
terrestrial (longwave) radiation. determine whether the air sinks or
rises at a place.
✓ Greenhouse house gases like CO2,
water vapor, are the primary ✓ The surrounding atmosphere exerts
absorbers of the terrestrial radiation buoyant force on low- pressure cells
and their concentration is highest at and hence the air within a low
the earth’s surface and goes on pressure cell rises.
decreasing with altitude. Hence,
✓ The air within a high-pressure cell
temperature falls with altitude.
sinks as it is denser than the
surrounding atmosphere.
14. Which of the following are the factors • The irregularities of the earth’s surface
that affect wind movement? resist the wind movement in the form
of friction.
1. Coriolis Force
2. Gravitational Force
• Due to the earth’s rotation, winds do
not cross the isobars at right angles as
3. Centripetal Acceleration the pressure gradient force directs but
get deflected from their original path.
4. Buoyant Force
5. Transparency of Atmosphere ✓ This deviation is the result of the
earth’s rotation and is called the
Select the correct code. Coriolis effect.
A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only • Centripetal acceleration creates a force
directed at right angles to the wind
B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
movement and inwards towards the
C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only centres of rotation.
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15. Consider the following statements:
1. The trade winds are those blowing
from the sub-tropical high-
pressure areas towards the
equatorial low-pressure belt.
2. The westerlies of the southern
hemisphere are weaker than those
of northern hemisphere due to the
vast expanse of water.
3. Sirocco are foehn like winds in
USA and Canada move down the
west slopes of the Rockies.
4. Mistral is one of the local names
given to such winds that blow from
the Alps over France towards the
Mediterranean Sea.
Which of the above statements are
correct?
A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation
• The trade winds are those blowing
from the sub-tropical high-pressure
areas towards the equatorial low-
pressure belt.
• The westerlies of the southern
hemisphere are stronger and persistent
due to the vast expanse of water, while
those of the northern hemisphere are
irregular because of uneven relief of
vast land-masses.
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2. History & Culture
To watch the following questions on YouTube, click on the links given below
Video 1
Video 2
Video 3
Video 4
1. Which one of the following foreign 2. Consider the following pairs:
travellers elaborately discussed about 1. Radhakanta Deb – First President
diamonds and diamond mines of of the British Indian Association
India?
2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty –
A. Francois Bernier Founder of the Madras Mahajana
B. Jean-Baptiste Tavernier Sabha
C. Jean de Thevenot 3. Surendranath Banerjee – Founder
of the Indian Association
D. Abbe Barthelemy Carre
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
Answer: B
matched?
Explanation
A. 1 only
• Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (1605-1689)
B. 1 and 3 only
was a French explorer and merchant.
C. 2 and 3 only
• He was the first European to describe
the diamond mines in India. D. 1, 2 and 3
• In 1676, Tavernier published an Answer: B
account of his six journeys to India Explanation
and Persia from 1631 to 1668 in Les Six
Voyages de Jean- Baptiste Tavernier • British Indian Association was
(translated into English in 1678 as The founded on October 29, 1851 at
S i x Vo y a g e s o f J o h n B a p t i s t a Calcutta with Raja radhakanta dev
Tavernier). and debendranath tagore as its
President and Secretary respectively.
• Though Tavernier provided a wealth
of information about his travels and • Other members of the Association
work, he did not record the details of included Ramgopal Ghosh, peary
his important transactions. chand mitra and Krishnadas Pal. Its
membership was kept exclusive to
• Tavernier is best known for his 1666 Indians.
discovery or purchase of the 116-carat
Tavernier Blue diamond.
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• The object of the Association was 'to D. Satyendranath Tagore became the
secure improvements in the local first Indian to succeed in the Indian
administration of the country and in Civil Services Examination. 1864
the system of government laid down Answer: B
by Parliament'.
Explanation
• Madras Mahajana Sabha was an
Indian nationalist organisation based • Nil Darpan is a Bengali play written
in the Madras Presidency. by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859.
✓ The play was essential to Nil
• The first organisation in the Madras
Vidroha, better known as the Indigo
Presidency to agitate for the rights of
Revolt of February–March 1859 in
Indians was the Madras Native
Bengal, when farmers refused to
Association which was established by
sow indigo in their fields to protest
publicist Gazulu Lakshminarasu
against exploitative farming under
Chetty in 1849.
the British rule.
• This organisation did not survive for
long and was eventually disbanded. • Arya Samaj is a monotheistic Indian
Hindu reform movement that
• In May 1884, M. Veeraraghavachariar, promotes values and practices based
G . S u b r a m a n i a I y e r a n d P. on the belief in the infallible authority
Anandacharlu established the Madras of the Vedas.
Mahajana Sabha.
• The samaj was founded by the
• The Indian Association was the first sannyasi Dayanand Saraswati on 10
avowed nationalist organization April 1875.
founded in British India by
Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda • Anandamath is a Bengali fiction,
written by Bankim Chandra
Mohan Bose in 1876.
Chattopadhyay and published in 1882.
• The objectives of this Association were
"promoting by every legitimate means • It is inspired by and set in the
background of the Sannyasi Rebellion
the political, intellectual and material
in the late 18th century, it is considered
advancement of the people".
one of the most important novels in
the history of Bengali and Indian
3. Which among the following events literature.
happened earliest? • A Civil Service Commission was setup
A. Swami Dayanand established Arya in 1854 in London and competitive
Samaj. 1875 examinations were started in 1855.
B. D i n a b a n d h u M i t r a w r o t e ✓ In 1864, the first Indian, Shri
Neeldarpon. 1858-59 Satyendranath Tagore brother of Shri
Rabindaranath Tagore succeeded in
C. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
the Indian Civil Services
wrote Anandmath. 1882
Examination.
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4. C o n s i d e r t h e f o l l o w i n g p a i r s : • Warkaris worship Vitthal (also known
Traditions :: Communities as Vithoba), the presiding deity of
Pandharpur, regarded as a form of
1. Chaliha Sahib Festival - Sindhis
Krishna.
2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra - Gonds
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh • Saints and gurus of the bhakti
movement associated with the
3. Wari-Warkari - Santhals Jharkhand Warkaris include Dnyaneshwar,
Which of the pairs given above is/are Namdev, Chokhamela, Eknath, and
correctly matched? Tukaram, Gadge Maharaj all of whom
are accorded the title of Sant.
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only 5. W h i c h o n e o f t h e f o l l o w i n g
C. 1 and 3 only statements does not apply to the
system of Subsidiary Alliance
D. None of the above
introduced by Lord Wellesley?
Answer: A
A. To maintain a large standing army at
Explanation other’s expense
• Sindhis worship, Lord Jhulelal, and B. To keep India safe from Napoleonic
Chaliha is the most important festival danger
for the Sindhi community.
C. To secure a fixed income for the
• Chailo Sahib or Chaliha is a forty-day Company
festival which falls in the months of
D. To establish British paramountcy
July - August when Sindhis observe
over the Indian States
fast for forty days to please their God
Jhulelal. Answer: C
• Nanda Devi Raj Jaat or Himalayan Explanation
Mahakumbh is a festival in
• Wellesley developed the system of
Uttarakhand in which Goddess Nanda Subsidiary Alliance. The main features
Devi (also known as Gaura and Raj of the system were:
Rajeshwari in Garhwal division) is
worshipped. ✓ The native ruler who became a
subsidiary ally of the English would
• Warkari (meaning 'the one who be protected by the Company’s
performs the Wari') is a sampradaya government against foreign attack.
(religious movement) within the
bhakti spiritual tradition of Hinduism, ✓ In lieu of this guarantee the native
geographically associated with the ruler had to maintain a force under
Indian state of Maharashtra. British command and pay a subsidy
for its maintenance to the Company.
✓ He was forbidden to negotiate with
any foreign power without the
knowledge of the English.
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Pre - Historic Period
6. Consider the following pairs:
Period :: Site
1. Bhimbetka :: Mesolithic
2. Mahagara :: Neolithic
3. Hallur :: Chalcolithic
Which of the above pairs is/are
incorrect?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
7. In which one of the following sites
Answer: A Paleolithic, Mesolithic & Neolithic
Explanation traces are found?
• Palaeolithic Period A. Bhimbetka
✓ From 2 million years ago to about B. Belan Valley
12,000 years ago C. Kurnool Caves
✓ Covers 99% of human histor D. Chitra Kot Falls
• Mesolithic Period Answer: B
✓ Beginning of environmental changes Explanation
✓ 12,000 years ago till about 10,000 • In the northern spurs of the Vindhyas
years ago and in the Belan valley all the three
• Neolithic Period phases of the Palaeolithic followed by
the Mesolithic and then by the
✓ From about 10,000 years ago to 4,500 Neolithic have been found in
BCE
sequence.
✓ Wide-ranging set of developments
• In the course of time archaeologists
• Chalcolithic Period have discovered Lower, Middle and
Upper Paleolithic industries, along
✓ Transitional period between the
with animal fossils.
Neolithic and the Bronze Age
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• In the topmost deposit they found 9. W h i c h o n e o f t h e f o l l o w i n g
Mesolithic tools. The Mesolithic tools statements is incorrect with respect to
from the lower levels belonged to non- Chalcolithic period?
geometric assemblage whereas as
A. Important sites of this phase are
those from the upper levels belonged
spread in Rajasthan, Maharashtra,
to geometric types.
West Bengal, Bihar and Madhya
• Over 100 Mesolithic sites have been Pradesh.
found in the Belan valley. Most of
B. Chalcolithic cultures have been
these are open-air sites but a few are
primarily associated with different
rock shelters.
types of pottery.
C. Advancement of beginning of settled
8. Which of the following are the life and the growth of village
features of Neolithic Age? settlements started in this age.
1. Invention of Wheel D. None of the above
2. Pointed Tools Answer: C
3. Making pottery to store grains Explanation
4. Domestication of animals • The end of the Neolithic Period saw
the use of metals of which copper was
5. Food producers
the first and a culture based on the use
Select the correct code. of stone and copper arrived. Such a
culture is called Chalcolithic.
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only • Chalcolithic cultures have been
primarily associated with different
C. 1, 3 and 5 only types of pottery, that have been
excavated from over there.
D. 2, 4 and 5 only
Answer: C • Black and Red Wave Culture: The
characteristic features of this pottery
Explanation are the black colour inside and near
the rim on outside, and red colour,
• Main features of Neolithic age
over the rest of the body.
✓ Food producers
• A greater part of the region in which
✓ Invention of Wheel these chalcolithic cultures flourished is
the zone of black cotton soil.
✓ Polished & grinded tools
✓ Pottery • The main crops were barley, wheat,
rice, bajra, jowar, lentil, horsegram,
✓ Hunting and fishing economy haycinth bean, grass pea, pea, black
gram and green gram.
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10. Consider the following statements: • Greek and Aramaic scripts were
employed in writing Ashokan
1. The study of inscriptions is known
inscriptions in Pakistan and
as epigraphy.
Afghanistan, but Brahmi continues to
2. Stone Age people conducted be the main script till the end of Gupta
exchange via Barter System. times.
3. The oldest deciphered inscriptions
belong to the late 4th century BCE, (Indus Valley Civilization)
and are in Brahmi and Aramaic 11. The Harappans ate a wide range of
scripts. plant and animal products. Consider
Which of the above statements are the following statements with respect
correct? to the same.
A. 1 and 2 only 1. The harappans grew wheat, barley,
lentil, chickpea and sesame.
B. 2 and 3 only
2. Fish eating was common for people
C. 1 and 3 only in the coastal sites of Gujarat.
D. 1, 2 and 3 Which of the above statements is/are
Answer: A correct?
Explanation A. 1 only
• The study of inscriptions is known as B. 2 only
epigraphy. C. Both 1 and 2
• Inscriptions were carved on seals, D. None of the above
stone pillars, rocks, copperplates,
temple walls, wooden tablets, and Answer: C
bricks or images. Explanation
• The Harappan inscriptions -
• The Harappans ate a wide range of
pictographic script in which ideas and plant and animal products, including
objects were expressed in the form of fish.
pictures.
• Archaeologists have been able to
• The oldest deciphered inscriptions reconstruct dietary practices from
belong to the late 4th century BCE, finds of charred grains and seeds.
and are in Brahmi and Kharoshthi.
• These are studied by archaeo-
✓T h e s e e p i g r a p h s w e r e f i r s t botanists, who are specialists in
deciphered in 1837 by James ancient plant remains.
Prinsep, a civil servant in the
employ of the East India Company • Grains found at Harappan sites
in Bengal. include wheat, barley, lentil, chickpea
and sesame.
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• Millets are found from sites in Gujarat. • After Mohen-jo-Daro, Ganweriwala
and Harappa in Pakistan and
• Finds of rice are relatively rare. Rakhigarhi in Haryana of India,
Dholavira is the fifth largest
metropolis of IVC.
12. Consider the following statements
with respect to Dholavira site. • The site has a fortified citadel, a
middle town and a lower town with
1. It is the only Indus city without
walls made of sandstone or limestone
citadel. Chanudaro.
instead of mud bricks in many other
2. There is a cascading series of water Harappan sites.
reservoirs present at this site.
• Other important features
3. Evidence of double burial (male
and female together) is found ✓ Cascading series of water reservoirs
at this site. Lothal ✓ Outer fortification
4. Funerary architecture like Tumulus ✓ Two multi-purpose grounds
is one of the unique features of this
✓ Nine gates with unique designs
site.
✓ Funerary architecture featuring
Which of the above statements is/are
tumulus hemispherical structures
correct?
like the Buddhist Stupas
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
13. Consider the following statements:
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
1. During Harappan civilisation,
D. 2 and 4 only copper was brought from Oman.
Answer: D 2. Carnelian and steatite are some of
the stones used for making beads.
Explanation
3. Exchanges were regulated by a
• Dholavira, the archaeological site of a precise system of weights.
Harappan-era city, received the
UNESCO world heritage site tag. 4. There is substantial evidence that
coins were used to pay
• While Dholavira became the fourth
for goods obtained from African
site from Gujarat and 40th from India
regions.
to make the list, it is the first site of the
ancient Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) Which of the above statements are
in India to get the tag. correct?
A. 1, 3 and 4 only
B. 2 and 3 only
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C. 1, 2 and 3 only Answer: C
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Explanation
Answer: C
Explanation
• The variety of materials used to make
beads is remarkable: stones like
carnelian (of a beautiful red colour),
jasper, crystal, quartz and steatite;
metals like copper, bronze and gold;
and shell, faience and terracotta or
burnt clay.
15. Consider the following statements:
• Recent archaeological finds suggest
that copper was also probably brought 1. Temples and religious structures
from Oman, on the southeastern tip of are found in Shortughai site.
the Arabian peninsula.
2. Female terracotta figures are more
• Chemical analyses have shown that than that of male figures.
both the Omani copper and Harappan
3. S c r i p t u s e d b y H a r r a p a n s
artefacts have traces of nickel,
resembled more with Egyptian
suggesting a common origin.
scripts.
• Exchanges were regulated by a precise Which of the above statements is/are
system of weights, usually made of a
correct?
stone called chert and generally
cubical with no markings. A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
14. Consider the following pairs: Metals :: C. 1 and 3 only
Source Region
D. 3 only
1. Gold :: Afghanistan
Answer: B
2. Steatite :: South Rajasthan
Explanation
3. Lead :: Shortughai
• Chief male deity was Pashupati
4. Silver :: Mesopotamia Mahadeva (proto-Shiva) sitting in a
yogic pose on a low throne, having 3
Which of the above pairs is/are correct?
faces & 2 thorns.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
• Chief female deity was Mother
B. 3 and 4 only Goddess, depicted in various forms
but there are no signs of temples.
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
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• Harappan seals usually have a line of • Included by the UNESCO in the list of
writing, probably containing the name literature signifying World Human
and title of the owner. Heritage.
• Scholars have also suggested that the • Priests related to the Rig Veda: Kotri or
motif (generally an animal) conveyed Motri
a meaning to those who could not
read.
• Upveda: Ayurveda.
• Although the script remains
• Only surviving recension of the Rig
Veda is the Shakala shakha.
undeciphered to date and it bears no
resemblance to the Egyptian and The Sama Veda
Mesopotamian Scripts.
• Collection of verses mostly taken from
the Rig Veda, but arranged in a poetic
form to facilitate singing.
The Vedic Age
16. Consider the following pairs: • Collection of 1,810 melodies, and also
contains the famous Dhrupada raga,
Veda :: Feature later sung by Tansen.
1. Rig Veda :: Upveda of the Rig Veda Upveda: Gandharva Veda.
is the Gandharva Veda.
• Recensions (Shakhas) of the Sama
2. Sama Veda :: Sets tunes for singing Veda are Kauthuma,
hymns of Rig Veda. J a i m i n i y a ( Ta l a v a k a r a ) , a n d
Ranayaniya. Yajur Veda
3. Yajur Veda :: Procedure for the
performance of sacrifices. • Deals with the procedure for the
performance of sacrifices.
4. Atharva Veda :: The Upveda of the
Atharva Veda is the Dhanur Veda. • contains Kathaka, Maitrayani,
Taittiriya, and Kapishthala recensions.
Which of the above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only • Upveda: Dhanur Veda.
Atharva Veda
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only • Collection of magic spells and charms
to ward off the evil spirits and
D. 1 and 4 only diseases.
Answer: B • It is the last Veda and is considered a
Explanation non-Aryan work divided into 20
kandas (books), with 711 hymns.
Rig Veda
• It contains the Gopatha Brahmana.
• Collection of 1,028 hymns, divided
into 10 Mandals (books). • Shaunaka and Paippalada are the
recensions of the Atharva Veda.
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• Upveda: Shilpa Veda. 18. Consider the following terms which
were used during Rig Vedic Age.
1. Gavyuti: Lineage Measure of
17. Consider the following statements
distance
with respect to Early Vedic and Later
Vedic period. 2. Gojit: Hero/Winner
1. Society was divided in form of 3. Urvara: Cereals Fertile fields
varnas during Ealy Vedic period.
4. Goghna: Guest
2. Religion during Later Vedic period
Which of the above terms are correctly
was priest dominated and mantras
described?
orientated.
A. 1 and 2 only
3. During the Early Vedic Period,
women were forced to stay indoors. B. 2 and 3 only
4. Agriculture was the main source of C. 1, 3 and 4 only
income during Later Vedic period.
D. 2 and 4 only
Which of the above statements are
Answer: D
correct?
Explanation
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: C
Explanation
19. The concept of “Origin of the
Universe” is mentioned in which of
the following?
A. Brahmanas
B. Puranas
C. Rig Veda D.
D. Yajur Veda
Answer: C
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Explanation ✓ Also called the ‘forest books’ as they
were written mainly by hermits
• The N sad ya S kta also known as the
living in the jungles for their pupils.
Hymn of Creation, is the 129th hymn
of the 10th mandala of the Rigveda . ✓ Deal with mysticism and philosophy
and oppose sacrifice.
• It is concerned with cosmology and
the origin of the universe. ✓ Emphasise on meditation.
• Other Important Concepts: • Sutras
✓ Doctrine of ‘Trimurti’: Maitrayani ✓ Sutras are very short condensed
Upanishad statements that are used to express
varied ideas.
✓ Gotra: Atharva Veda
✓K s h a t r i y a s ’ p re c e d e n c e o v e r
• There are six Sutras.
Brahmanas: Atreya Brahamana ✓ Shiksha (Phonetics)
✓ Mention of the eastern and western ✓ Kalpa (Ritualistic science)
seas: Satpatha Brahmana
✓ Jyotisha (Astronomy)
✓ Vyakaran (Grammar)
20. Consider the following statements
✓ Nirukta (Etymology)
with respect to Vedic Literature.
✓ Chhanda (Metrics)
1. Aranyakas deal with mysticism and
philosophy and oppose sacrifice. • The Puranas generally discuss five
topics in the time span of four ages/
2. Nirukta Sutra deals with Metrics.
yugas (Satya, Treta, Dvapara, and
3. Texts related to royal dynasties, Kali):
both the Suryavanshis and
✓ Sarga (Deals with the creation of the
Chandravanshis are mentioned in
world) !Pratisarga (Recreation)
Vamsha.
✓ Manvantaras (Periods of the various
Which of the above statements is/are
Manus)
correct?
✓ Vamsha (Genealogies of the gods
A. 1 and 2 only
and rishis)
B. 3 only
✓ Vamshanucharita (Texts relating to
C. 1 only royal dynasties, both the
Suryavanshis—who claimed their
D. 2 and 3 only
descent from the Sun—and
Answer: C Chandravanshis—who claimed their
descent from the Moon).
Explanation
• Aranyakas
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3. Polity & Governance
To watch the following questions on YouTube, click on the links given below
• Video 1
• Video 2
• Video 3
• Video 4
1. Consider the following statements • Scheme is a reformative step towards
with respect to SWAMITVA scheme. establishment of clear ownership of
property in rural inhabited (Abadi)
1. It is a Central Sponsored Scheme of
areas, by mapping of land parcels
Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
using drone technology and providing
2. The coverage of the schemes is only ‘Record of Rights’ to village household
limited to 9 states. owners with issuance of legal
ownership cards (Property cards/Title
3. It seeks to create accurate land
deeds) to the property owners.
records for rural planning and
reduce property related disputes. • The Scheme is implemented with the
collaborative efforts of the Ministry of
Which of the above statements is/are
Panchayati Raj, State Revenue
correct?
Department, State Panchayati Raj
A. 2 only Department and Survey of India.
B. 2 and 3 only
2. Which of the following statements are
C. 3 only
correct with respect to Global
D. 1 and 3 only Housing Technology Challenge.
Answer: C 1. Light House Projects (LHP) are
Explanation launched as a part of GHTC.
2. Light House Projects are proposed
• SVAMITVA, a Central Sector Scheme
of Ministry of Panchayati Raj was for every city in each state.
nation-wide launched by the Hon’ble 3. The Ministry of Science and
Prime Minister on National Panchayati Technology has conceptualized a
Raj Day, 24th April 2021 after Global Housing Technology
successful completion of pilot phase of Challenge.
scheme (2020-2021) in 9 states.
4. It aims to identify and mainstream
a basket of innovative technologies
from across the globe that are
sustainable and disaster-resilient.
Select the correct code.
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A. 1, 3 and 4 only • LHPs will demonstrate and deliver
ready to live mass housing at an
B. 2 and 3 only
expedited pace as compared to
C. 1 and 4 only conventional brick and mortar
construction and will be more
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
economical, sustainable, of high
Answer: C quality and durability.
Explanation 3. Consider the following pairs:
• The Ministry of Housing and Urban Scheme :: launched by Ministry/
Affairs, Government of India has Agency
conceptualized a Global Housing
1. Surakshit Hum Surakshit Tum
Technology Challenge - India (GHTC-
Abhiyaan :: Ministry of Health and
India)
Family Welfare
• It aims to identify and mainstream a
2. PM SVANidhi :: Ministry of Micro,
basket of innovative technologies from
Small and Medium Enterprises
across the globe that are sustainable
(MoMSME)
and disaster-resilient.
3. P r i m e M i n i s t e r E m p l o y m e n t
• As a part of GHTC- India, six Light
Generation Program (PMEGP) ::
House Projects (LHP) consisting of
NITI Aayog
about 1,000 houses each with physical
& social infrastructure facilities is Which of the above pairs are incorrect?
being constructed at six places across
A. 1 and 2 only
the country namely Indore; Rajkot;
Chennai; Ranchi; Agartala and; B. 2 and 3 only
Lucknow.
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation
• NITI Aayog and Piramal Foundation
has launched Surakshit Hum
Surakshit Tum Abhiyaan in 112
Aspirational Districts to assist district
administrations in providing home-
care support to Covid-19 patients who
are asymptomatic or have mild
symptoms.
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• The Abhiyaan is being part of a special • Prime Minister's Employment
initiative, Aspirational Districts Generation Programme (PMEGP) is a
Collaborative, in which local leaders, central sector credit linked subsidy
civil societies and volunteers work scheme being implemented by the
with district administrations to Ministry of MSME since 2008-09 to
address emerging problems across key assist first generation entrepreneurs
focus areas of the Aspirational for setting up of micro enterprises
Districts Programme. across the country.
• PM SVANidhi scheme is a Central • The scheme is implemented by Khadi
Sector Scheme i.e. fully funded by and Village Industries Commission
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (KVIC) functioning as the nodal
with the following objectives: agency at the national level.
✓ To facilitate working capital loan up • At the state level, the scheme is
to Rs. 10,000; implemented through State KVIC
Directorates, State Khadi and Village
✓ To incentivize regular repayment;
Industries Boards (KVIBs), District
and
Industries Centres (DICs) and banks.
✓ To reward digital transactions
• In such cases KVIC routes government
subsidy through designated banks for
• The scheme will help formalize the eventual disbursal to the
street vendors with above objectives beneficiaries / entrepreneurs directly
and will open up new opportunities to into their bank accounts.
this sector to move up the economic
ladder.
4. Recently, YUVA Scheme was in news,
• The Scheme is available for
Consider the following statements
beneficiaries belonging to only those
regarding it:
States/UTs which have notified Rules
and Scheme under Street Vendors 1. It is an Author Mentorship scheme
(Protection of Livelihood and which aims to mentor authors
Regulation of Street Vending) Act, under the age of 25.
2014.
2. National Book Trust of India under
• Beneficiaries from Meghalaya, which the Ministry of Education is the
has its own State Street Vendors Act Implementing Agency to ensure
may, however, participate. execution of the Scheme.
3. The scheme is a part of the
India@75 Project.
Which of the above statement is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
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B. 2 only • Overall, a scholarship of Rs.50,000 per
month for a period of six months per
C. 2 and 3 only
author will be given under the
D. 1, 2 and 3 only Mentorship Scheme.
Answer: C
Explanation 5. The initiatives- Champions Portal and
SFURTI - are associated with which of
• Recently, The Ministry of Education,
the following ministries of the Indian
launched YUVAPrime Minister ’s
government?
S c h e m e F o r M e n t o r i n g Yo u n g
Authors, an Author Mentorship A. Ministry of Micro, Small and
programme to train young and Medium Enterprises (MSME).
budding authors (below 30 years of
B. M i n i s t r y o f E l e c t r o n i c s a n d
age) in order to promote reading,
Information Technology.
writing and book culture in the
country, and project India and Indian C. Ministry of Rural Development.
writings globally.
D. Ministry of Education.
• This scheme is in line with the PM's
Answer: A
vision to encourage young writers to
write about India’s freedom struggle. Explanation
• These are the schemes associated with
• The young authors will be trained by the MSME ministry:
eminent authors/ mentors. The books
✓C r e a t i o n a n d H a r m o n i o u s
by these authors will be published by
Application of Modern Processes for
National Book Trust, India.
Increasing the Output and National
• National Book Trust of India under the Strength
Ministry of Education is the
Objectives
Implementing Agency.
• To help the MSMEs in this difficult
• The scheme is a part of the India@75 situation in terms of finance, raw
Project (Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav).
materials, labour, permissions, etc.
• A total of 75 authors will be selected • To help the MSMEs capture new
through Competition.
opportunities in manufacturing and
• The books will also be translated into services sectors.
other Indian languages.
• To identify the sparks, i.e., the bright
• It will ensure the exchange of culture MSMEs who can withstand at present
and literature thereby promoting ‘Ek and become national and international
Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’. champions.
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• Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of 3. Charter Act of 1813 made Indian
Traditional Industries (SFURTI) is an trade open to all British merchants.
initiative by Ministry of MSME to
Which of the above statements is/are
promote Cluster development.
correct?
• Khadi a n d Vi l l a g e I n d u s t r i e s
A. 1 and 3 only
Commission (KVIC) is the nodal
Agency for promotion of Cluster B. 2 only
development for Khadi.
C. 2 and 3 only
• As per the revised guidelines, the
D. 1, 2 and 3
following schemes are being merged
into SFURTI: Answer: C
•The Scheme for Enhancing Explanation
Productivity and Competitiveness of
• Regulating Act of 1773
Khadi Industry and Artisans
✓G o v e r n o r o f B e n g a l a s t h e
✓T h e S c h e m e f o r P r o d u c t ‘Governor-General of Bengal’
Development, Design Intervention
and Packaging (PRODIP) ✓ Governors of Bombay and Madras
presidencies
✓ The Scheme for Rural Industries
Service Centre (RISC) and ✓ Establishment of a Supreme Court at
Calcutta (1774)
✓ Other small interventions like Ready
Warp Units, Ready to • Pitt’s India Act of 1784
Wear Mission, etc.
✓D i s t i n g u i s h e d b e t w e e n t h e
Historical Underpinnings commercial and political functions
of the Company.
6. There were certain events in the
British rule that laid down the legal ✓ “British possessions in India”
framework for the organisation and
✓ Empowered the Board of Control to
functioning of government and
supervise and direct all operations
administration in British India.
(Civil or Military)
Consider the following statements
with respect to the same. • Charter Act of 1813
1. Pitt’s India Act of 1784 designated ✓ Abolished the trade monopoly of the
the Governor of Bengal as the company in India
‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and
✓ Sovereignty of the British Crown
created an Executive Council of
over the Company’s territories
four members to assist him.
2. Regulating Act of 1773 provided for
✓ Spread of western education
the establishment of a Supreme
Court at Calcutta. ✓ allowed the Christian missionaries
to come to India
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7. Consider the following statements • Although the Constituent Assembly
with respect to Constituent Assembly. was not directly elected by the people
of India on the basis of adult franchise,
1. Constituent Assembly was directly
the Assembly comprised
elected by the people of India on
representatives of all sections of the
the basis of adult franchise.
Indian society– Hindus, Muslims,
2. The concept of social, economic and Sikhs, Parsis, Anglo-Indians, Indian
political justice was mentioned in Christians, SCs, STs including women
Objectives Resolution. of all these sections.
3. Whenever the Assembly met as the • Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest
Constituent body it was chaired by member, was elected as the temporary
Dr. Rajendra Prasad and when it President of the Assembly, following
met as the legislative body, it was the French practice.
chaired by G.V. Mavlankar.
• Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected
Which of the above statements are as the President of the Assembly.
correct? Similarly, both H.C. Mukherjee and
V.T. Krishnamachari were elected as
A. 1 and 2 only
the Vice-Presidents of the Assembly.
B. 2 and 3 only
•Objectives Resolution was
C. 1 and 3 only unanimously adopted by the
Assembly on January 22, 1947.
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B • two separate functions were assigned
to the Assembly, that is, making of the
Explanation Constitution for free India and
enacting of ordinary laws for the
• The Constituent Assembly was
constituted in November 1946 under country. These two tasks were to be
the scheme formulated by the Cabinet performed on separate days.
Mission Plan. • These two functions continued till
November 26, 1949, when the task of
• Constituent Assembly was partly
elected and partly nominated body. making the Constitution was over.
Moreover, the members were to be
indirectly elected by the members of
8. W h i c h a c t p r o v i d e d f o r t h e
the provincial assemblies, who
establishment of new legislative
themselves were elected on a limited
councils for Bengal, North-Western
franchise.
Provinces and Punjab?
A. Government of India Act of 1858
B. Indian Councils Act of 1861
C. Indian Councils Act of 1892
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D. Indian Councils Act of 1909 Explanation
Answer: B • In addition to the making of the
Constitution and enacting of ordinary
Explanation
laws, the Constituent Assembly also
• The Indian Councils Act of 1861 is an performed the following functions:
important landmark in the
✓ It ratified the India’s membership of
constitutional and political history of
the Commonwealth in May 1949.
India.
✓ It adopted the national flag on July
• Association of Indians with the law-
22, 1947.
making process.
✓ It adopted the national anthem on
✓ Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of
January 24, 1950.
Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao
✓ It adopted the national song on
• Process of decentralisation January 24, 1950.
✓ Restoring the legislative powers to
✓ It elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the
the Bombay and Madras
first President of India on January
Presidencies.
24, 1950.
• Portfolio System • The Drafting Committee, after taking
✓ Introduced by Lord Canning in 1859 into consideration the proposals of the
various committees, prepared the first
draft of the Constitution of India,
9. Arrange the following events in which was published in February,
correct chronological order. 1948.
1. Ratification of India’s membership
of the Commonwealth 1949
10. Consider the following statements:
2. Adoption of the national flag 1947
1. Union Powers Committee and
3. Adoption of the national anthem Union Constitution Committee
1950 were chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru.
4. Publication of first draft of the 2. The Constitution as adopted on
Constitution of India 1948 November 26, 1949, contained a
Preamble, 395 Articles and 8
Select the correct code
Schedules.
A. 2-3-4-1
3. Prem Behari Narain Raizada was
B. 4-2-3-1 the calligrapher of the Indian
C. 2-4-1-3 Constitution.
D. 4-2-1-3
Answer: C
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4. The Indian Independence Act of • With the commencement of the
1947 and the Government of India Constitution, the Indian Independence
Act of 1935 continued till First Lok Act of 1947 and the Government of
Sabha was constituted on 17 April India Act of 1935, with all enactments
1952. amending or supplementing the latter
Act, were repealed.
Which of the above statements are
correct? • The Abolition of Privy Council
Jurisdiction Act (1949) was however
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
continued.
B. 2 and 3 only
Salient Features and Preamble of
C. 3 and 4 only the Constitution
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: D 11. Indian Constitution is considered as
the lengthiest Constitution of the
Explanation world. Which of the following are the
• Major Committees: factors that have contributed to the
elephantine size of our Constitution?
✓U n i o n P o w e r s C o m m i t t e e -
Jawaharlal Nehru 1. Dominance of members from legal
background in the Constituent
✓ Union Constitution Committee Assembly
-Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Single Constitution for both the
✓ Provincial Constitution Committee Centre and the states
-Sardar Patel
3. Partition of India and Pakistan
✓ Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R. 4. Diversity of the nation
Ambedkar
5. Socio Religious reforms before
✓A d v i s o r y C o m m i t t e e o n Independence
Fundamental Rights, Minorities and
Select the correct code.
Tribal and Excluded Areas - Sardar
Patel. A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
• The Constitution as adopted on B. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
November 26, 1949, contained a C. 2, 3 and 4 only
Preamble, 395 Articles and 8
D. 1, 2 and 4 only
Schedules.
Answer: D
✓ The Preamble was enacted after the
entire Constitution was already Explanation
enacted. • Originally (1949), the Constitution
contained a Preamble, 395 Articles
(divided into 22 Parts) and 8
Schedules.
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• Four factors have contributed to the ✓ Nor a dominion of any other nation
elephantine size of our Constitution.
• The terms ‘secular’, ‘socialist’ and
They are: ‘integrity’ too was added by the 42nd
✓ Geographical factors, that is, the Constitutional Amendment Act of
vastness of the country and its 1976.
diversity.
✓ Historical factors, e.g., the influence
of the Government of India Act of
1935, which was bulky.
✓ Single Constitution for both the
Centre and the states. !Dominance of
legal luminaries in the Constituent
Assembly.
13. Which of the following provisions of
the Constitution ensures civic
12. Consider the following statements:
equality?
1. Being a sovereign state, India can
1. Equality before the law.
either acquire a foreign territory or
cede a part of its territory in favour 2. Abolition of untouchability
of a foreign state. 3. Equal pay for equal work
2. The terms ‘secular’ and ‘integrity’ 4. Abolition of titles
were added by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act of 5. Universal Adult Suffrage
1976. Select the correct code.
3. In the Berubari Union16 case (1960), A. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
the Supreme Court held that the
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
Preamble is an integral part of the
Constitution. C. 2, 4 and 5 only
Which of the above statements is/are D. 1, 2 and 4 only
correct? Answer: D
A. 1 and 3 only Explanation
B. 2 only • The Preamble secures to all citizens of
C. 1 and 2 only India equality of status and
opportunity. This provision embraces
D. 1, 2 and 3
three dimensions of equality–civic,
Answer: C political and economic.
Explanation • The following provisions of the
chapter on Fundamental Rights ensure
• Sovereign
civic equality:
✓ Neither a dependency
✓ Equality before the law (Article 14).
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