March 2021 - PRE-Mix (Compilations of the Multiple Choice Questions) For the Month - Sleepy Classes
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PRE-Mix
(Compilations of the Multiple Choice Questions)
For the Month
Of
March
2021
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Table of Contents
1. Geography .............................................................................................................1
2. History ....................................................................................................................9
3. Polity & Governance ........................................................................................26
4. Economy ................................................................................................................39
5. Environment .........................................................................................................57
6. Science & Technology .......................................................................................75
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1. Geography
To watch the following questions on YouTube, click on the links given below
• Video 1
• Video 2
1. Arrange the ports from North to South as per their “Geographical Location “
1. Chittagong Port
2. Sittwe Port
3. Kyaukpyu Port
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3,2
C. 2, 1,3
D. 3, 2,1
Answer: A
Explanation
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2. Consider the following statements:
1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10 deg C lesser than that of the
surroundings.
Which of the following statements are true ?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: C
Explanation
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• The eye temperature may be 10°C warmer or more at an altitude of 12 km than the surrounding
environment, but only 0-2°C warmer at the surface in the tropical cyclone.
3. Recently the term “ Backstop Agreement “ was in news . It was in context of :
A. TPP
B. RCEP
C. BREXIT
D. MERCOSUR
Answer: C
Explanation
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4. Boyoma Falls are a system of waterfalls that hold the record as the largest waterfall by volume of
annual ow rate. It is located in which of the following country?
A. Democratic Republic of Congo
B. Nigeria
C. Tanzania
D. Uganda
Answer: A
Explanation
• They form the largest waterfall by volume of annual ow rate in the world, exceeding both the
Niagara Falls and the Iguazu Falls.
5. Which part of the Sun is visible during a Total Solar Eclipse
A. Photosphere
B. Corona
C. Heliosphere
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation
• The corona is the outermost layer of the Sun, starting at about 1300 miles (2100 km) above the solar
surface (the photosphere). The temperature in the corona is 500,000 K (900,000 degrees F, 500,000
degrees C) or more, up to a few million K.
• The corona cannot be seen with the naked eye except during a total solar eclipse, or with the use of a
coronagraph.
6. Which of the following are true for Western Disturbance ?
1. It is an tropical storm originating in the Mediterranean region.
2. It leads to non-monsoonal precipitation pattern driven by the westerlies.
3. It is responsible brings sudden winter rain to the northwestern parts of the Indian subcontinent.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
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Explanation
• A western disturbance is an extra tropical storm
originating in the Mediterranean region that
brings sudden winter rain to the northwestern
parts of the Indian subcontinent.
• It is a non-monsoonal precipitation pattern
driven by the westerlies.
• The moisture in these storms usually originates
over the Mediterranean Sea, the Caspian Sea
and the Black Sea
• Western disturbances are important for the development of the Rabi crop which includes the locally
important staple wheat.
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7. What are the factors which may affect “Surface Ocean Salinity” ?
1. Evaporation
2. Precipitation
3. Fresh water ow
4. Wind
5. Ocean Currents
A. 1, 2 3 and 5
B. 1, 2 , 3 and 5
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation
Remember
• The low salinity trend is observed in the Bay of Bengal due to in ux of river water by the river Ganga.
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• On the contrary, the Arabian Sea shows higher salinity due to high evaporation and low in ux of fresh
water.
8. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
1. Majority of agricultural land in India is under some form of irrigation than being rain fed.
2. The mean productivity of both irrigated and rain-fed lands is almost the same.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation
• Irrigated area accounts for nearly 48.8 per cent of the 140 million hectare of agricultural land in India.
The remaining 51.2 per cent is rainfed.
• The mean productivity of rainfed area (71.62 mha) is about 1.1 tonne per ha compared to 2.8 tonne
per hectare of irrigated area.
9. Which of the following is / are the characteristics of Indian coal?
1. High ash content
2. Low Sulphur content
3. Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation
• Statement 1 is correct as Indian coal has high ash content.Statement 2 is correct as content of
Sulphur is low in Indian coal.
• Statement 3 is incorrect as Indian coal has high low ash fusion temperature.
• Indian coals like any other gondwana coals are of high ash content which due to the nature of
formation of the coal deposits.
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• In general Indian Coals are of drift origin, i.e. the original plant materials, which were later
transformed into coal, were transported by rivers and laid down as uviatile, lacustrine or deltaic
deposits. As a result the plant material were contaminated with clay and other detritus minerals,
giving rise to high ash content
10.Strait of Gallipoli connects:
A. Sea of Marmara and Aegean Sea
B. Aegean Sea and Ionian Sea
C. Black Sea and Sea of Marmara
D. Caspian Sea and Black Sea
Answer: A
Explanation
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2. History
To watch the following questions on YouTube, click on the links given below
• Video 1
• Video 2
• Video 3
• Video 4
1. Which of the following are Iltutmish’s contributions?
1. Iqtadari System
2. Tanka
3. Jittal
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation
• Iltutmish made a signi cant contribution in giving shape to administrative institution such as iqtas,
army and currency system. ·
• He gave the Sultanate two of its basic coins– the silver ‘Tanka’ and the copper ‘Jittal’. To affect greater
control over the conquered areas Iltutmish granted iqtas (land assignments in lieu of cash salaries) to
his Turkish of cers on a large scale.
• The recipients of “iqtas” called the “iqtadars” collected the land revenue from the territories under
them. Out of this they maintained an armed contingent for the service of the state, enforced law and
order and met their own expenses.
• Iltutmish realized the economic potentiality of the Doab and the iqtas were distributed mainly in this
region. This secured for Iltutmish the nancial and administrative control over one of the most
prestigious regions of North India
2. Consider the following:
1. Sawar
2. Du-aspah
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3. Zat
4. Mansabdari System
Which of the above were introduced by Akbar?
A. 4 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: D
Explanation
• There is, however, a controversy regarding the Mansabdari system i.e. when it started precisely. From
the available evidence, it appears that this system had been initiated by Akbar (in 1577). Along with
Mansabdari system, Akbar also reformed the revenue system and introduced two new concepts
namely ‘Zat’ and ‘Sawar.’
• Jahangir also introduced a system whereby the selected nobles could be allowed to maintain a larger
quota of troopers, without raising their Zatrank. The system was popular as ‘duaspah’ (a trooper with
two horses) or ‘sih-aspah’ (a trooper with three horses) system.
3. Which of the following events left Ripon totally disillusioned and heartbroken and because of which
he tendered his resignation and left for England?
A. Passage of First Factory Act 1881
B. Illbert Bill passage
C. Non passage of Self government Act
D. William Hunter Commission controversy
Answer: B
Explanation
• According to the system of law, a European could be tried only by a European Judge or a European
Magistrate.
• The disquali cation was unjust and it was sought to cast a needless discredit and dishonour upon the
Indian-born members of the judiciary. C.P. Ilbert, Law Member, introduced a bill in 1883 to abolish this
discrimination in judiciary.
• But Europeans opposed this Bill strongly. They even raised a fund of one lakh fty thousand rupees
and established an organisation called the Defence Association. They also suggested that it was
better to end the English rule in India than to allow the English to be subjected to the Indian Judges
and Magistrates.
• The press in England joined the issue. Hence, Ripon amended the bill to satisfy the English in India and
England.
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• The Ilbert Bill controversy helped the cause of Indian nationalism. The Ilbert Bill Controversy is a high
watermark in the history of Indian National Movement. Ripon was totally disillusioned and
heartbroken and he tendered his resignation and left for England.
• The immediate result of this awakening of India was the birth of the Indian National Congress in
1885, the very next year of Ripon‘s departure.
4. Arrange the following states in the correct chronological order of them accepting the British
Subsidiary Alliance system?
1. Hyderabad
2. Awadh
3. Mysore
Select the correct code.
A. 1-2-3
B. 3-2-1
C. 1-3-2
D. 3-1-2
Answer: C
Explanation
• The Indian princes who accepted the subsidiary system were:
✓the Nizam of Hyderabad (September 1798 and 1800),
✓the ruler of Mysore (1799),
✓the ruler of Tanjore (October 1799),
✓the Nawab of Awadh (November 1801),
✓the Peshwa (December 1801),
✓the Bhonsle Raja of Berar (December 1803),
✓the Sindhia (February 1804),
✓the Rajput states of Jodhpur, Jaipur, Macheri, Bundi and the ruler of Bharatpur (1818).
✓The Holkars were the last Maratha confederation to accept the Subsidiary Alliance in 1818.
5. Welby Commission is famous in Modern Indian History for which of the following reasons?
A. Educational reforms
B. Relations between British crown and Indian princely states
C. Police reforms
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D. To enquire into the Drain theory
Answer: D
Explanation
• Dadabhai Naoroji in his famous book Poverty and UnBritish Rule in India wrote his Drain Theory. He
showed how India‘s wealth was going away to England in the form of:
✓salaries,
✓savings,
✓pensions,
✓payments to British troops in India and e) pro ts of the British companies.
• In fact, the British Government was forced to appoint the Welby Commission, with Dadabhai as the
rst Indian as its member, to enquire into the matter.
6. Khujli Ghar recently heard in news is associated with which of the following states?
A. Nagaland
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Bihar
D. West Bengal
Answer: A
Explanation
• Some villages in Nagaland are trying to revive a traditional form of punishment to reduce crime.
• Khujli ghar is a cramped, triangular cage made from the logs of Masang-fung. Masang-fung is a local
tree that causes irritation.
• Social offenders of Naga customary laws dread this punishment due to humiliation within the
community.
• Such itchy cages are referred to as khujli ghar in Nagamese
• The Aos, one of the major tribes of Nagaland, call it Shi-ki ( esh-house).
• The cage is usually placed at a central spot in the village, usually in front of the morung (bachelor’s
dormitory) for the inmate to be in full public view.
• It does not affect the palm but people who make the cages have to be careful.
• Article 371(A) of the Constitution guarantees the preservation of the Naga customary laws.
• The State also funds the customary courts in villages and towns where cases — mostly dealing with
land litigation, money-lending and marital disputes — have a high rate of prompt disposal.
Article 371A
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• Parliament cannot legislate in matters of Naga religion or social practices, the Naga customary law
and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga
customary law.
• Parliament also cannot intervene in ownership and transfer of land and its resources, without the
concurrence of the Legislative Assembly of the state.
• This provision was inserted in the Constitution after a 16-point agreement between the Centre and
the Naga People’s Convention in 1960, which led to the creation of Nagaland in 1963.
7. Which of the following pairs have been correctly matched?
1. Houthi- Syria
2. Hazara- Iran
3. Cossacks- Ukraine
4. Moor- Sudan
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
Explanation
• Houthis - Yemen
• Cossacks - Ukraine and southern
• Russia Moor - Morrocan
• Hazara - Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran
8. Based on the following statements identify the temple?
1. The temple is dedicated to Maa Bagulamukhi Devi who is a powerful manifestation of Goddess
Durga.
2. It is believed that Raja Veersen, the then ruler of Dongargarh, in order to appease the Gods for his
true successor, had built the temple 2200 years ago
3. The temple is located near Durg in the state of Chattishgarh.
A. Maa Vindhyachal Vasini Temple
B. Maa Bamleshwari Devi Temple
C. Achru Mata Temple
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D. Harsiddhi Durga Temple
Answer: B
Explanation
• Foundation Stone was laid down for development of Maa
Bamleshwari Devi Temple, Dongargarh, Chhattisgarh under
PRASHAD Scheme
• The temple here is dedicated to Maa Bagulamukhi Devi who
is a powerful manifestation of Goddess Durga.
• ‘National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual,
Heritage Augmentation Drive’ (PRASHAD)
• It is a Central Sector Scheme
• Launched by: Ministry of Tourism in 2014-15
• Objective: Integrated development of identi ed pilgrimage and heritage destinations
• Aim: Infrastructure development such as entry points (Road, Rail and Water Transport), last mile
connectivity, ATM/ Money exchange, area lighting and illumination with renewable sources, rst aid
centers, etc
• Till now, 13 projects have been successfully completed under PRASHAD Scheme.
9. The musical instrument Santoor is a traditional instrument of
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Odisha
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Jammu and Kashmir
Answer: D
Explanation
• In India, "Santoor" was used as an accompaniment instrument to
the folk music of Kashmir.
• It was a 100-stringed instrument played in a style of music known as
the Su ana Mausiqi.
• The Su mystics used it as an accompaniment to their hymns.
• The original Sanskrit name of Santoor was "Shatha Tantri Veena"
meaning a lute or a stringed instrument that has over hundred strings.
• Santoor is a Persian name to this same instrument "Shatha Tantri Veena" that has references back to
Vedic literature.
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10.Navjivan newspaper is associated with which of the following personalities?
A. M.K. Gandhi
B. Sunder Singh Lyallpuri
C. Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi
D. Tarak Nath Das
Answer: A
Explanation
• Navjivan India is an Indian newspaper published by The Associated Journals Ltd who began
publishing the daily Navjivan on 1 November 1947.
• Earlier,a newspaper called Navjivan was published by Mohandas Gandhi, therefore with his
permission, The Associate Journals started publishing Navjivan.
• Just like National Herald and Qaumi Awaz, Navajivan was also started with the intention to promote
the principles of Mahatma Gandhi's freedom movement and Jawaharlal Nehru’s vision of modern
India.
11.Which of the following statements are correct about Sahitya Akademi Award?
1. Established in 1944, It is a cultural honour that is conferred biannually by Sahitya Akademi,
India’s National Academy of letters.
2. Indian lm-maker Satyajit Ray is the designer of the plaque awarded by the Sahitya Akademi.
Choose the correct answer from above
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation
• News - The National Academy of Letters have announced the names for the “Sahitya Akademi Award
2020 on March 12, 2021.
About
• Sahitya Akademi award established in 1954, is a literary honour that is conferred annually by Sahitya
Akademi, India’s National Academy of letters.
• Award is presented to the most outstanding books of literary merit published in any of the twenty-
four major Indian languages recognised by the Akademi (including English).
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• Sahitya Akademi award is the second highest literary honour by the Government of India, after
Jananpith award.
• The award is presented in the form of a casket containing an engraved copper- plaque, a shawl and a
cheque of Rs 1 lakh.
• Indian lm-maker Satyajit Ray is the designer
of the plaque awarded by the Sahitya
Akademi.
Criteria
• The author must be of Indian Nationality.
• Book/work eligible for award must be an
outstanding contribution to the language and
literature to which it belongs.
• When equal merit for books of two or more are found, certain criterialike total literary contribution
and standing of authors shall be taken into consideration for declaring award.
12.Based on following statements identify the monument .
1. Built in the 13th century, conceived as a gigantic chariot of the Sun God, with 12 pairs of
exquisitely ornamented wheels pulled by seven horses.
2. Built by King Narasimhadeva I, the great ruler of Ganga dynasty.
3. It was included in UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984 for its architectural greatness and also
for the sophistication and abundance of sculptural work.
Choose the correct Option
A. Jagannath Puri
B. Lingaraj Temple
C. Konark Temple
D. Lalitgiri
Answer: C
Explanation
• Built in the 13th century, the Konark temple was conceived as a gigantic chariot of the Sun God, with
12 pairs of exquisitely ornamented wheels pulled by seven horses.
• It was built by King Narasimhadeva I, the great ruler of Ganga dynasty.
• The temple was included in UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1984 for its architectural greatness and
also for the sophistication and abundance of sculptural work.
• The temple is a perfect blend of Kalinga architecture, heritage, exotic beach and salient natural
beauty.
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• It is protected under the National Framework of India by the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological
Sites and Remains
• (AMASR) Act (1958) and its Rules (1959).
• The Konark is the third link of Odisha’s Golden
Triangle.
• The rst link is Jagannath Puri and the second link is
Bhubaneswar (Capital city of Odisha).
• This temple was also known as ‘BLACK PAGODA’ due
to its dark colour and used as a navigational landmark
by ancient sailors to Odisha.
13. Which of the following statements are correct about the World Heritage Sites ?
1. To be selected, a World Heritage Site must be an already classi ed landmark, unique in some
respect as a geographically and historically identi able place having special cultural or physical
signi cance.
2. All world heritage sites in India are regulated and maintained by Ministry of Culture.
Choose the correct statements
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation
About
• A World Heritage site is classi
ed as a natural or man-made area or a structure that is of international
importance, and a space which requires special protection.
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• These sites are of cially recognised by the UN
and the United Nations Educational Scienti c
and Cultural Organisation, also known as
UNESCO.
• UNESCO believes that the sites classi ed as
World Heritage are important for humanity, and
they hold cultural and physical signi cance
• The list is maintained by the international World
Heritage Programme administered by the
U N E S C O Wo r l d H e r i t a g e C o m m i t t e e ,
composed of 21 UNESCO member states which
are elected by the General Assembly.
• Each World Heritage Site remains part of the legal territory of the state wherein the site is located
and UNESCO considers it in the interest of the
• To be selected, a World Heritage Site must be an already classi ed landmark, unique in some respect
as a geographically and historically identi able place having special cultural or physical signi cance.
• CULTURAL SITES - Under Protection of Archaeological Survey of India (22).
• NATURAL SITES: (7) - Under Protection of Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Changes and
respectively other departments.
14.Which one of the following was the very special port in the Kaktiya dynasty ?
A. Kakinada
B. Motupalli
C. Masulipatnam
D. Nelluru
Answer: B
Explanation
• Bronze idols of Lord Nataraja, his
consort Parvati, their son Ganesha and
Alwars, the Bhakti movement saints
dating back to the 12th century, were
found in the 1970s, has remained
hitherto untapped.
• It is interesting to note that coins and
pottery from the 9th century Chinese
Ming dynasty were also found during
the excavations conducted in 1972.
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• Italian traveller Marco Polo who had visited the port in 1287 AD, had given a vivid account on the
ourishing trade activities at the port during the reign of Kakatiya queen Rudrama Devi.
• Motupalli Veerabhadraswamy temple
✓Veerabhadra Swamy temple was constructed during the regime of the Cholas,It has stone
inscriptions in Telugu and Tamil and awe- inspiring Panchaloha idols.
✓It is said that this Temple ourished during the times of Kakatiya rulers who established sea trade
with foreign countries.
15. Sanskrit prosody or Chandas is related to which of the following ?
A. Tantric Rituals
B. Architecture
C. Vedic studies
D. None of the above.
Answer: C
Explanation
About
• Sanskrit prosody or Chandas refers to one of the six Vedangas, or limbs of Vedic studies.
• It is the study of poetic metres and verse in Sanskrit.
• This eld of study was central to the composition of the Vedas, the scriptural canons of Hinduism, so
central that some later Hindu and Buddhist texts refer to the Vedas as Chandas.
• The Chandas, as developed by the Vedic schools, were organized around seven major metres, and
each had its own rhythm, movements and aesthetics.
• Sanskrit metres include those based on a xed number of syllables per verse, and those based on xed
number of morae per verse.
• Extant ancient manuals on Chandas include Pingala's Chandah Sutra, while an example of a medieval
Sanskrit prosody manual is Kedara Bhatta's Vrittaratnakara.
16.Which of the following statements about Ayya Vaikunda Swamikal are correct ?
1. He lived in the Vijaynagara Empire .
2. He was against idol worship and he did not allow the portraitures to draw his gure.
3. He advised his followers to practice Dharma and the most important form of Dharma was
considered ‘Annadhanam’.
Choose the correct answer from above -
A. 1 and 2 only
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B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: B
Explanation
• Context - Prime Minister paid tributes to
Ayya Vaikunda Swamikal, a great thinker
and social reformer of the 19th century, on
his birth anniversary.
• Ayya Vaikunda (1809-1851) was a great
humanist and social thinker.
• He lived in the Princely Kingdom of
Travancore in the early decades of the 19th
Century Kerala.
• He is remembered as the rst well known
social reformer in India who critiqued the
caste discrimination and religious hierarchy
and fought against the practice of untouchability.
• His gave an exhortation of 'ONE CASTE, ONE RELIGION, ONE CLAN, ONE WORLD, ONE GOD’.
• He was against idol worship and he did not allow the portraitures to draw his gure.
• His theory and practice like 'samathva samajam', 'sama panthi bhojan’, aimed at cultivating a thought
of equality and unity in Indian.
• He founded 'samathva samajam' in 1836 and was considered the rst socio reform movement in
India.
• He called the rule of the British as ‘Ven Neechan’ and the rule of the king of Travancore as ‘The
Neechan of Ananthapuri’.
• He advised his followers to practice Dharma and the most important form of Dharma was considered
‘Annadhanam’.
• He organized ‘Sama Panthi Bhojana’ in each and every place of worship in the name of ‘Annadanam’.
17.Which of the following statements about Rakhigarhi are correct ?
1. The site is located in Sarasvati river plain.
2. Two levels of Early (3500 BC— 2600 BC) and Mature Harappan (2600 BC —1800 BC) civilization
have been found at Rakhigarhi.
Choose the correct answer from above -
A. 1 only
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B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation
• Context - Rakhigarhi is being developed as one of the
Five Identi ed m Iconic Archeological Sites.
About Rakhigarh
• The ancient site of Rakhi-Khas and Rakhi-Shahpur are
collectively known as Rakhigarhi, located on the right
bank of now dried up Palaeo- channel of Drishadvati
or Saraswati.
• Seven (07) mounds are located here.
• The site has yielded various stages of Harappan
culture and is by far one of the largest Harappan sites
in India.
• The site shows the sequential development of the
Indus culture in the now dried up Saraswati basin.
• For development of the sites and its environs, repairing of boundary wall, pathways, public amenities ,
solar Lights, Benches are being provided.
Rakhigarhi
• Rakhigarhi, in Haryana, became an
archaeological hotspot when
Amarendra Nath, former director of
the Archaeological Survey of India
(ASI), undertook excavations at the
site in 1997.
• It is the largest Indus Valley
Civilisation site in the country
• Two levels of Early (3500 BC— 2600
BC) and Mature Harappan (2600 BC
—1800 BC) civilization have been
found at Rakhigarhi. Both the phase
have yielded a rich haul of artefacts.
• It is a necropolis which has yielded
burials, important for the study of
any civilisation.
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• The site is located in the Sarasvati river plain, some 27 km from the seasonal Ghaggar river.
• In May 2012, the Global Heritage Fund, declared Rakhigarhi one of the 10 most endangered heritage
sites in Asia.
18.Based on the following statements identify the dance -
1. It is the most popular dance form of Kerala
2. The word translates as story play.
3. It is popular for its make-up and costumes.
4. The actor never speaks with his hands.
5. They usually depict the ancient stories of Mahabharata, Ramayan and other Puranas.
6. The language of the songs used for this dance is Manipravalam.
Choose the correct option -
A. Kathakali
B. Mohiniyattam
C. Kokali
D. Tirvathirakali
Answer: A
Explanation
• Context - Kathakali maestro Chemancheri Kunhiraman Nair dies at
105.
• Kathakali, is an ef orescent art form of Kerala.
• Kathakali is probably the oldest theatre forms in the world.
• It originated in the state of Kerala and the Kathakali dancers perform
a group presentation, in which they act upon various roles which are
traditionally based on themes from sacred Hindu mythology,
especially the two epics, the Ramayana and the Mahabharata.
• The actor in Kathakali never speaks expect with his hands.
• The text of the drama is sung for him and is the baseline for his
interpretation.
• The movements of the face, eyebrows and eyeballs, cheeks, the nose and the chin are minutely
worked out and various emotions are registered in a ash by each individual actor-dancer.
• The roles of women are generally played by men, though of late, women are entering the arena.
• A cylindrical drum called chenda, another horizontally held drum (maddalam), cymbals and a gong
form the musical accompaniment, with two vocalists rendering the songs.
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• The language of the songs used for Kathakali is Manipravalam.
• Though most of the songs are set in ragas based on the microtone- heavy Carnatic music, there is a
distinct style of plain-note rendition, which is known as the Sopanam style.
• This typically Kerala style of rendition takes its roots from the temple songs which used to be sung
(continues even now at several temples) at the time when Kathakali was born.
• The costume is the most distinctive characteristic of Kathakali.
• The makeup is very elaborate and the costumes are very large and heavy.
19.Which of the following statements are correct about Bamiyan Buddhas ?
1. It is also called Greco-Buddhist art, showing in uences of the Hellenistic styles of classical Greek
sculptures.
2. It is situated in the high mountains of Hindkush Range in Pakistan.
3. They were called by the locals Salsal and Shamama.
Choose the correct Option -
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: C
Explanation
Context
• The Bamiyan Buddhas were recently brought back to life
with the help of 3D projection in an event held in the
Bamiyan Valley of Afghanistan.
• The event called 'A Night with Buddha' was held on the
20th anniversary of annihilation of the Buddha statues in
the valley.
• The event is a beautiful sight where hundreds of young
Afghan men and women, carrying kerosene lanterns, spend
their nights in a valley of central highlands.
Bamiyan Buddhas
• The Bamiyan Buddhas were great examples of a con uence of Gupta, Sassanian and Hellenistic
artistic styles.
• They are said to date back to the 5th century AD.
• They were once the tallest standing Buddhas in the world.
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• They were called by the locals as Salsal and Shamama.
• Salsal means “light shines through the universe”; Shamama is “Queen Mother”.
• UNESCO included the remains in its list of world heritage sites in 2003.
• Efforts have been made to restore and reconstruct the Buddhas in their niches with the pieces
available.
Bamiyan
• It is situated in the high mountains of the Hindu Kush in the central highlands of Afghanistan.
• The valley is set along the line of the Bamiyan River.
• It was once integral to the early days of the Silk Roads, providing passage for merchants, culture,
religion and language.
20.Toto Tribal People are found in which of the following states ?
A. Jharkhand
B. West Bengal
C. Nagaland
D. Andhra Pradesh
Answer: B
Explanation
• The Toto is an isolated tribal group residing only
in a small enclave called Totopara in the
Alipurduar district of West Bengal
• Totopara is located at the foot of the Himalayas
just to the south of the borderline between
Bhutan and West Bengal (on the western bank of
Torsa river).
• Totos were nearly becoming extinct in the 1950s,
but recent measures to safeguard their areas
from being swamped with outsiders have helped
preserve their unique heritage and also helped
the population grow.
• It is a very primitive inheritance, considered as
Mongoloid people.
• Toto People belong in the Indo- Bhutanese tribal community.
• Now a day's all Toto people concentrate in Totopara, 22 km away from Madarihat, Alipurduar District.
• They have at nose, small eye, broad and square cheeks, thick lips and black iris.
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• Toto tribes believed in joint family system as like as other Indian communities people, but nuclear
family are also available.
• Monogamy is common form of marriage among the Toto but polygamy is not prohibited.
• They have a simple lifestyle and are largely dependent on trading vegetables and fruits.
• In spite of the fact that they de ne themselves as Hindus, the Totos are believers of God Ishpa and
goddess Cheima.
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3. Polity & Governance
To watch the following questions on YouTube, click on the links given below
• Video 1
• Video 2
• Video 3
• Video 4
1. Which of the following is true with regard to the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act?
1. It provided a special status to the UT of Delhi and re-designatedit the National Capital Territory
of Delhi.
2. The administrator of Delhi is designated as the lieutenant(lt.) governor who appoints the Chief
Minister.
3. The assembly can make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List except
the three matters of the State List, that is, public order, police, and land.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: B
Explanation
• The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 provided a special status to the Union Territory of
Delhi, and redesignated it the National Capital Territory of Delhi and designated the administrator of
Delhi as the lieutenant (lt.) governor. It created a legislative assembly and a council of ministers for
Delhi.
• The assembly can make laws on all the matters of the State List and the Concurrent List except the
three matters of the State List, that is, public order, police, and land. But, the laws of Parliament
prevail over those made by the Assembly.
• The chief minister is appointed by the President (not by the lt. governor).
• The other ministers are appointed by the president on the advice of the chief minister.
• The ministers hold of ce during the pleasure of the president.
• The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the assembly.
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2. The rst high court was set-up in 1862 at
1. Calcutta
2. Bombay
3. Madras
4. Allahabad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
A. 1 only
B. 1, 2 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: B
Explanation
• The institution of high court originated in India in 1862 when the high courts were set up at Calcutta,
Bombay, and Madras1.
• In 1866, a fourth high court was established at Allahabad.
3. What was the main issue of concern for the T.K. Vishwanathan Committee?
A. To deal with cyber crimes especially online hate speech.
B. To suggest measures to strengthen banks and reduce NPAs.
C. To deal with electoral reforms.
D. To suggest measures to improve quality of primary education.
Answer: A
Explanation
• An expert committee headed by former Lok Sabha secretary general TK Viswanathan to deal with
cyber crimes especially online hate speech recommended appointing cyber crime coordinators in all
states and establishing cyber crime cells in each district.
• The committee was formed after Supreme Court struck down Section 66 A of the Information
Technology (IT) Act, 2000.
4. Which of the following is correct about the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010?
1. The NGT is a statutory tribunal to handle the expeditious disposal of the cases pertaining to
environmental issues
2. The NGT is bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
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3. The NGT is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals nally within
6 months of ling of the same
Select the correct option
A. Only 1
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Explanation
• National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 (NGT) is an Act of the Parliament of India which enables creation
of a special tribunal to handle the expeditious disposal of the cases pertaining to environmental
issues.
• The Tribunal's dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental
justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts.
• The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908,
but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
• The tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals nally within
6 months of ling of the same.
• Initially, the NGT is proposed to be set up at ve places of sittings and will follow circuit procedure for
making itself more accessible; New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal,
Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the other place of sitting of the Tribunal.
5. Which of the below statements are true regarding the Contingency Fund of India?
1. It is placed at the disposal of the president but requires authorisation by the Parliament.
2. It is governed by the contingency fund of the India Act in 1950.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation
• Contingency Fund of India (Article 267) - The Constitution authorised the Parliament to establish a
‘Contingency Fund of India’, into which amounts determined by law are paid from time to time.
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• Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the contingency fund of the India Act in 1950. This fund is placed
at the disposal of the president, and he can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditures
pending its authorisation by the Parliament.
• The fund is held by the Finance secretary on behalf of the president.
6. The Opportunity Index 2021 report was recently released by
A. Transparency International
B. Google
C. LinkedIn
D. International Labour Organization
Answer: C
Explanation
Context
• It is a new report by LinkedIn.
• 9 in 10 or 89 per cent of women were negatively impacted by the coronavirus pandemic.
• About 85%, or four in ve working women in India believe they have missed out on a raise, promotion,
or work offer because of their gender.This average stands at 60% for the Asia Paci c (APAC) region.
• More women in India have experienced the impact of gender on career development when compared
to the APAC region.
Challenges for women
• Lack of time and discrimination for family care.
• Gender is a barrier when it comes to attaining opportunities.
• Lack of guidance through networks.
• Workplace discrimination because of household responsibilities.
7. Which of the following statements regarding Registration of political parties are correct?
1. Registration of Political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the
Representation of the People Act, 1951
2. To be eligible for a ‘National Political Par ty of India’, it should secure at least ten percent of the
valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or,
to the State Legislative Assembly.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both1and2
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D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation
• Context:The Election Commission has said it had reduced the public notice period for new political
parties seeking registration from 30 days to seven days due to the delays caused by the COVID-19
pandemic.
• The relaxation in notice period would remain in force till the last dates of nomination for the Assam,
Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Puducherry and West Bengal elections, that is March 19 and April 7
respectively.
• According to guidelines, the applicants are supposed to publish the proposed name of their party in
two national and local daily newspapers each on two days, seeking objections, if any, within 30 days.
Registration of political parties
• Registration of Political parties is governed by the provisions of Section 29A of the Representation of
the People Act, 1951.
• A party seeking registration under the said Section with the Election Commission has to submit an
application to the Commission within the said period following the date of its formation as per
guidelines prescribed by the Election Commission of India in exercise of the powers conferred by
Article 324 of the Commission of India and Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act,
1951.
To be eligible for a ‘National Political Party of India
• It secures at least six percent of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election
to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly.
• In addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States.
• It wins at least two percent seats in the House of the People (i.e., 11 seats in the existing House having
543 members), and these members are elected from at least three different States.
To be eligible for a ‘State Political Party
• It secures at least six percent of the valid votes polled in the State at a general election, either to the
House of the People or to the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned
• In addition, it wins at least two seats in the Legislative Assembly of the State concerned.
• It wins at least three percent (3%) of the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of the
State, or at least three seats in the Assembly, whichever is more.
8. Which of the following statements regarding Insurance ombudsman are correct?
1. One can approach the Ombudsman with complaint only if the value of the claim including
expenses claimed is not be above Rs 30 lakhs.
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2. If a settlement by recommendation does not work, the Ombudsman will Pass an award within 3
months of receiving all the requirements from the complainant and which will be binding on the
insurance company.
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both1and2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation
Context:The government has amended insurance ombudsman rules.
• As per the new rules:
✓Insurance brokers are now covered under ombudsman rules.
✓Policyholders are now allowed to le online complaints.
✓The scope of complaints has been enlarged to ombudsmen from only disputes earlier to
de ciencies in service on the part of insurers, agents, brokers and other intermediaries.
✓The ombudsman may use video-conferencing for hearings.
✓The Insurance Ombudsman scheme was created by the Government of India for individual
policyholders to have their complaints settled out of the courts system in a cost-effective, ef cient
and impartial way.
✓Any person who has a grievance against an insurer, may himself or through his legal heirs, nominee
or assignee, make a complaint in writing to the Insurance ombudsman.
9. Shekatkar Committee is related to which of the following:
A. ISRO “frame-up” case
B. Army pay scales
C. Restructuring railways
D. Border Infrastructure.
Answer: D
Explanation
• Context: Government has accepted and implemented three important recommendations of
Committee of Experts (CoE) under the Chairmanship of Lt General D B Shekatkar (Retd) relating to
border Infrastructure.
• Accepted recommendations:
✓Speeding up road construction,
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✓Outsourcing road construction work beyond optimal capacity of the Border Roads Organisation
(BRO).
✓Mandatory to adopt Engineering Procurement Contract (EPC) mode for execution of all works
costing more than Rs 100 crore.
✓Delegating enhanced procurement powers from Rs 7.5 crore to Rs 100 crore to BRO, for domestic
and foreign procurements.
• The land acquisition and all statutory clearances like forest and environmental clearance are also
made part of approval of Detailed Project Report (DPR).
• With the adoption of EPC mode of execution, it is mandatory to award work only when 90 per cent of
the statutory clearances have been obtained, implementing the recommendation of CoE regarding
obtaining prior clearances before the commencement of the project.
Other reforms suggested
• India’s defence budget should be in the range of 2.5 to 3 per cent of the GDP, keeping in mind possible
future threats.
• A Joint Services War College for training middle-level of cers should be established.
• The Military Intelligence School at Pune be converted to a tri-service intelligence training
establishment.
10.Private property comes under which of the following?
A. Human Right
B. Legal Right
C. Fundamental Right
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation
• Context:The Supreme Court recently held that a citizen’s right to own private property is a human
right and the state cannot take possession of it without following due procedure and authority of law.
Important observations made by the Court
• The state cannot trespass into the private property of a citizen and then claim ownership of the land
in the name of ‘adverse possession’.
• Grabbing private land and then claiming it as its own makes the state an encroacher.
• In a welfare state, right to property is a human right.
• A welfare state cannot be permitted to take the plea of adverse possession, which allows a trespasser
i.e. a person guilty of a tort, or even a crime, to gain legal title over such property for over 12 years.
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• The State cannot be permitted to perfect its title over the land by invoking the doctrine of adverse
possession to grab the property of its own citizens.
• The Himachal Pradesh government forcibly took over four acres of land belonging to a person at
Hamipur district to build a road in 1967.
• Even 52 years later, the state has failed to pay the compensation.
• The appellant was wholly unaware of her rights and entitlement in law, and did not le any
proceedings for compensation of the land compulsorily taken over by the state.
• When her petition was turned down by the High Court, the appellant moved the Supreme Court.
11.Which of the following statements are correct about Inner Line Permit?
1. ILP was introduced by the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act 1873 to regulate in ow of
outsiders to preserve the indigenous culture of tribes.
2. The areas falling under ILP are decided by respective state governments who then issue travel
documents to outsiders to enter these protected areas.
A. 1 Only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation
• The system of Inner Line Permit was rst introduced by the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act,
1873, the British framed regulations restricting the entry and regulating the stay of outsiders in
designated areas. This was to protect the Crown’s own commercial interests by preventing “British
subjects” (Indians) from trading within these regions.
• In 1950, the Indian government replaced “British subjects” with “Citizen of India”. This was to address
local concerns about protecting the interests of the indigenous people from outsiders belonging to
other Indian states.
• The decision regarded areas under ILP is decided by central government. However, ILP letter to allow
outsiders to travel in these areas temporarily is issued by the respective state govts.
12.Which of the following is correct about the Data Governance Quality Index?
1. It assesses performance of different states of India on the implementation of Central Sector
Schemes (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS).
2. It is conducted by Development Monitoring and Evaluation Of ce (DMEO) under NITI Aayog.
A. 1 only
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B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation
• DGQI survey assesses different Ministries /Departments' performance on the implementation of
Central Sector Schemes (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS).
• It is conducted by Development Monitoring and Evaluation Of ce (DMEO) under NITI Aayog.
• Its objective is to assess data preparedness of Ministries / Departments on a standardized framework
to drive healthy competition among them and promote cooperative peer learning from best practices.
• It will immensely help improve the implementation framework of government policies, schemes and
programmes to achieve the desired goals.
13.Which of the following statements are correct about the National Commission for Protection of
Child Rights (NCPCR)?
1. The NCPCR is a statutory body which works under the aegis of Ministry of Women and Child
Development.
2. The Commission de nes a child upto the age of 16 years and adolescent from 16 to 18 years of
age.
3. It tries to ensure that all laws are in consonance with Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the
Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the Above
Answer: C
Explanation
• The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is an Indian statutory body
established by an Act of Parliament, the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005.
The Commission works under the aegis of Ministry of Women and Child Development, GoI. The
Commission began operational on 5th March, 2007.
• The Commission is mandated under section 13 of CPCR Act, 2005 "to ensure that all Laws, Policies,
Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as
enshrined in the Constitution of India and the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child.” As de ned
by the commission, child includes person up to the age of 18 years.
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14.Consider the following statements:
1. Any persons employed with the central or state governments can’t be appointed as election
commissioners
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general
elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/ mergers of recognized political
parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Answer: C
Explanation
• Only statements 1 and 3 are correct.
• In a 2021 judgment the Supreme Court ruled ruled that any persons employed with the central or
state governments could not be appointed as election commissioners “across the length and breadth
of the country”.
• The ruling aims at ensuring independence of the election commissions. Election Commission of India
is a 3 member body and decides the election schedule for both general elections and bye-elections.
• It is also the function of election commission to resolve the disputes relating to splits/mergers of
recognized political parties.
15.In India, Judicial Review implies:
A. the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
B. the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
C. the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by
the President.
D. the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
Answer: A
Explanation
• Judicial review is the power of judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and
executive orders of both the Central and state governments.
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• On examination, if they are found to be violative of the Constitution (ultra- vires), they can be
declared as illegal, unconstitutional and invalid (null and void). Consequently, they cannot be enforced
by the government.
• The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in a high
court or supreme court on the following three grounds:
✓ it infringes the fundamental rights (Part III),
✓ it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and
✓ it is repugant to the constitutional provisions
16.Consider the following activities
1. Spraying pesticides on a crop eld.
2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes.
3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis.
At present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using
drones -
Choose the correct answer from above
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
17.What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India?
1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis.
2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug resistant bacteria can be reduced.
3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions.
Choose the correct Option
A. A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: B
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18.Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution ?
1. Built in Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden furniture.
5. Using Products made form polyurethane
Choose the correct Option -
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: D
19.With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct ?
1. It is spread over two districts.
2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.
Choose the correct Option
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2and 3
Answer: C
20.With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following
statements -
1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when 'bud chip settlings' are raised in a nursery and
transplanted in the main eld.
2. When direct planting of seeds is done, the germination percentage is better with single- budded
setts as compared to setts with many buds.
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when seeds are directly planted, single- budded seeds have
better survival as compared to large setts.
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